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> Thought is not in language or images or concepts or anything else, thought cannot have any content, irreducible substrate, or essence
nightrover
post Aug 29, 2007, 04:36 AM
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Colin leslie dean argues in

Contentless thought: case study in the meaninglessness of all views

http://gamahucherpress.yellowgum.com/books...lessthought.pdf

that thought cannot have any content, irreducible substrate, or essence. This strain argues that thought has no content i.e thought is not in language or images or concepts or anything else. This philosophy argues that thought can have no 'thing', or essence as a necessary truth. In consequence it agues the utter untenability of a mentalist realist philosophy of mind as well as the untenability of the analytic philosophical tradition of Dummett- which argues there can be no thought without language. Thus the debates between cognitivist and communicative theorists as to whether thought has an essence such as language, or images, or concepts, and or anything else is brought to an end. As a corollary to this it is argued untenability of any program, like Newspeak, as instigated in Orwell’s book Nineteen Eighty-Four, to control thinking, by delimiting thought, by controlling the content of thought

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post Aug 29, 2007, 06:35 AM
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About time you provide us with a link. thank you.
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Flex
post Aug 29, 2007, 10:21 AM
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Hey Nightrover, have you ever read Kant's Critique of Pure Reason?
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nightrover
post Aug 29, 2007, 01:40 PM
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QUOTE
Hey Nightrover, have you ever read Kant's Critique of Pure Reason?

kant said that hume woke him from his dogmatic slumber to write the CPR but kant was asleep all the time he never woke up
his transcendental idealism is refuted both by the fact of the universe is based on non-eclidian gemoetry and not eclidian as kant says his CPR argued
also his categories are not a product of pure reason but are socially constructed
also his whole CPR is

also his CPR is inconsistent and inchoerent thus meaninglessnes -as dean says all philosphy is



QUOTE
The central question Kant tries to answer in the 'Critique of Pure Reason' is "How are synthetic a priori judgements possible?" Nowell-Smith argues that the question is "...one of the most important and difficult in philosophy" With the work of W.V.O.Quine namely his "Two Dogmas of Empiricism" the distinction between synthetic as analytic knowledge has been thrown into doubt . This doubt, as Nowell-Smith notes, has led to recent discussion on the possibility of synthetic a priori knowledge . Norman Kemp-Smith argues that Kant assumed as a presupposition that synthetic a priori knowledge was possible and he sought to show how as a consequence synthetic a priori judgements where possible? As R Walker points out Kant’s solution was two fold [even though Kant didn't see that each solution was a separate attempted proof], namely his transcendental idealism and his transcendental arguments . Now as the presupposition for these proofs is the accepted validity of synthetic a priori knowledge then if this knowledge is proven to be non-existent then these proofs of Kant become redundant.

Strawson investigating Kant’s attempted account of synthetic a priori judgements via his transcendental idealism notes that this transcendental idealism is incoherent and as such "...it must be concluded that Kant really has no clear and general conception of the synthetic a priori at all." This is because Strawson claims that Kant transcendental idealism undermines Kant’s claims that he can have knowledge of reality because transcendental idealism means, according to Strawson, that “ reality is supersensible and that we can have no knowledge of it.”

If we at first focus upon Kant’s classification of propositions without looking at the individual definitions we will see that this classification leads itself to the fact that synthetic a priori propositions are a contradiction in terms. On this point it should be pointed out as Korner notes that the Kantian classification has been criticised by some critics: some seeing in the classification "...a mistake which vitiates the whole critical philosophy. "According to Kant all judgements are either analytic or synthetic and no judgement can be both; this is because these judgement are infact contradictories

According to Kant all judgements are either analytic or synthetic and no judgement can be both; this is because these judgement are infact contradictories . Korner makes the point that all analytic judgments are a priori . Now the question is are all a priori judgements analytic. If they are then in terms of Kant's own definitions a judgment cannot be synthetic a priori as this would mean that it is both synthetic and analytic simultaneously; a situation Kant denies can happen. Now based upon Kant’s explication of these terms the answer must be that all a prioris are anaylitic.. According to Kant judgements which are not a priori are a posteriori and thus synthetic ( non-analytic). Korner likewise notes “...all [judgements] that are a posteriori ( non a priori ) are necessarily synthetic (non analytic).” Thus because a posteriori judgements are synthetic then a priori judgements must be analytic because as Kant notes a judgement can only be one or the other. Consequently a synthetic a priori judgement is really a synthetic analytic judgement a situation as we have said Kant denies can happen

.

kant is still asleep as witgenstien is like his fly still trapped in his bottle
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Ignorance Is Eternal
post Aug 29, 2007, 04:30 PM
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QUOTE(nightrover @ Aug 29, 2007, 02:40 PM) *

also his CPR is inconsistent and inchoerent thus meaninglessnes -as dean says all philosphy is

Dean says this, Dean says that.

The irony is that Colin Leslie Dean is philosophizing that all philosophy is meaningless. You seem a little possessed his hypotheses.
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